Forum Discussion
thomas_malenich
Aug 30, 2004Explorer
Thomas,
Please consider this situation.
A toyhauler trailer is overloaded in the rear and ends up having a tongue weight (by your definition) of ZERO before the WD bars are tensioned. The WD hitch (from my example) then is hooked up and applies an upward force of 1000# at the end of each 30" spring bar.
What is the tongue weight before and after the WD bars are tensioned?
How much of the ZERO tongue weight is distributed to the TV and TT axles?
How much has the load on each axle changed as a result of tensioning the WD bars?
On edit: Please assume the toyhauler and TV have the dimensions shown in my orginal post.
OK Ron,
All WD systems need a minimum amount of tongue weight in order to work properly. Call a few companies like Lindon Hitch and they will tell you that. That is because you need that minimum weight at the ball in order for the bars to distribute it. If you have 0 tongue weight, what weight can you expect to distribute?
Furthermore, your original drawing shows: TV receiver load WD hitch REMOVES 300#'s.
1. Where is this load removed from ?
2. You are saying in your drawing: There is 300#s removed from the TV's receiver, but then you claim that the load on the TV's ball which is directly connected to the reciever and is directly under and connected to the tongue remains the same. How is this possible? It seems you are disagreeing with yourself.
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